Was Plessy v. Ferguson Legally Correct?

Joshism

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While in hindsight it is very regrettable and morally reprehensible, was the ruling of Plessy v. Ferguson legally correct for 1896?

My understanding is that the argument against segregation at the time was it violated 14th Amendments. The relevant part of the 14th Amendment states "No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

At best it would seem the 14th Amendment could prohibit state segregation laws (even if in 1896 you have the foresight to recognize seperate but equal will never be remotely equal). County and municipal segregation laws and segregation (or outright exclusion) by private businesses and organizations would seem to be legal under the 14th Amendment.

Protected classes against which government discrimination at any level and business discrimination are prohibited would not be introduced until the Civil Rights Act of 1964. My understanding is that these protections have been successfully defended on the basis of the Commerce Clause of the Constitution, an argument which I assume had not been made in the 19th century?

But I am no lawyer or even a constitutional law buff. Maybe I am misunderstanding the 14th Amendment in conjunction with some other part of the constitution? Or maybe someone did articulate the Commerce Clause argument prior to the mid-20th century?

If you were a lawyer in 1896, what existing laws of that time could be used to effectively argue that racial segregation and discrimination (in matters other than voting - see 15th Amendment) were constitutionally prohibited, especially with regard to businesses (railroads, restaurants, lodging, professional sports, or most mass transit)?
 

5fish

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Here is a site where you can scroll thought 14th amendment rulings...

 
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