Or humor in your LACK of it:Glad to see reason...
Your implication here, was that the individual states were NOT nation-statesOnly among nation-states... not states or provinces... or counties or cities...
However, historical fact proves that the states did NOT declare a national union in 1776 which was their political superior (which the US government claims they DID, as its core essential premise for claiming national union).
Therefore legal fact does not not align with historical fact; which precludes government by informed consent.
And since the US government CLAIMS to OPERATE by informed consent, then this proves that it is overtly authoritarian.
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